The 28-year-old G2P1 patient presents after rupture of membranes 2 hours ago at 39 weeks gestation. She has a history of prior cesarean section for failure to progress but is otherwise healthy; this pregnancy is uncomplicated. Contractions are painful and labor is progressing. Abruptly, the patient complains of extreme abdominal pain; the nurse observes a significant amount of blood coming from her vagina. Which action is most important? 

The nurse is assigned to a 32-year-old G1P0 female at 30 weeks estimated gestational age who presents with pre-eclampsia. On physical assessment, the patient’s blood pressure is 180/125 mm Hg. The patient is prescribed magnesium sulfate by the provider. Which of the following is the most indicative that magnesium sulfate has been effective?

The nurse is preparing for the well-baby visit for a 4-month-old baby and expects which behaviors from the patient? Select all that apply.