The 68-year-old patient is admitted after 5 days of extremely foul-smelling watery diarrhea with a temperature of 37.9°C, heart rate 118 bpm, and blood pressure 98/52 mmHg. The patient’s recent medical history is significant for being treated 2 weeks ago for a diverticulitis flare-up. Upon assessment, the patient is pale, diaphoretic, and has a tense, distended abdomen that he does not guard with palpation. Lab studies reveal an elevated creatinine (1.9 mg/dL), high white blood cell count (20,000 cells/mL), and normal hemoglobin and hematocrit. The nurse prepares to perform which diagnostic test for this patient?
- NCLEX Practice
- Categories
- Reduction of Risk Potential
- View Question
- Category: Reduction of Risk Potential
- Difficulty: 7
Want help? View the answer with rationale.
Additional Reduction of Risk Potential Questions
- Question Type: Multiple Choice - Select One
- Difficulty: 9
The nurse is assessing the arteriovenous fistula in the patient’s right arm; it is without thrill or bruit. Which action does the nurse take next?
- Question Type: Multiple Choice - Select One
- Difficulty: 6
The nurse is reviewing the results of a chromosomal microarray. The results are significant for a chromosomal abnormality in which a single amino acid has been altered. Which of the following terms should the nurse use to describe this abnormality?
- Question Type: Multiple Choice - Select One
- Difficulty: 4
0